FREE PREVIEW

Start Your Rrt Prep Journey: 30 Free Practice Questions

1040 Total Flashcards30 Free Preview Cards

30

Free Cards

1040

Total Cards

$7

Full Access

📚 What's Inside - All Categories

assessment

110 cards

basics

50 cards

diagnostics

250 cards

management

220 cards

procedures

230 cards

pharmacology

80 cards

pathology

90 cards

physiology

10 cards

🔒 Unlock all categories for just $7 - One-time payment, lifetime access

Preview Flashcards (30 Free Cards)

Saved Locally

30

Total Cards

0

Studied

0

Mastered

0

Need Review

1
📚 assessmentmedium

A 55-year-old patient reports smoking 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily for 20 years, then 0.5 packs daily for the last 10 years. Calculate the total pack-years and determine if this patient meets the 2026 criteria for annual lung cancer screening.

#pack-years#screening#tobacco
Tap to see answer
Card #1
Answer
Total = (1.5 x 20) + (0.5 x 10) = 35 pack-years. Per USPSTF/NBRC 2026 guidelines, patients aged 50-80 with a 20+ pack-year history who currently smoke or quit within 15 years should receive annual low-dose CT (LDCT). Strategy: The NBRC often requires a two-step process: calculating the history correctly and then applying the screening guideline. Common distractor: Using the older 30 pack-year threshold; the current standard is 20.
Tap to see question
Card #1
2
📚 assessmenthard

A 32-year-old non-smoker presents with progressive dyspnea and wheezing. Family history reveals a sibling with early liver disease. PFTs show a panacinar emphysema pattern. Which specific demographic/historical finding most strongly supports testing for AAT deficiency?

#AAT#genetics#COPD
Tap to see answer
Card #2
Answer
Early-onset emphysema (typically <45 years) in a non-smoker or minimal smoker, combined with a family history of liver disease or premature COPD, is the hallmark for Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency. Panacinar emphysema primarily affects the lower lobes (unlike centriacinar in smokers). NBRC Tip: Always screen young patients with COPD symptoms for AAT. Distractor: Do not assume asthma just because of wheezing in a young patient; look at the age and family history.
Tap to see question
Card #2
3
📚 assessmentmedium

A 64-year-old retired shipyard worker presents with exertional dyspnea and a dry cough. Physical exam reveals bibasilar inspiratory crackles and digital clubbing. Which historical detail is most critical for differentiating this from idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)?

#occupational#asbestosis#ILD
Tap to see answer
Card #3
Answer
Occupational exposure history (shipyards, construction, insulation, or brake lining) is critical. Asbestosis presents similarly to IPF but is linked to specific work history. Radiographic evidence of pleural plaques is pathognomonic for asbestos exposure. NBRC Focus: Identifying the source of interstitial lung disease (ILD) via patient history. Strategy: If the history mentions shipyards or old buildings, think asbestosis; if sandblasting, think silicosis.
Tap to see question
Card #3
4
📚 assessmenthard

A 19-year-old African American male with a history of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) presents with chest pain, a temperature of 38.5°C, and new infiltrates on CXR. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the primary respiratory therapy goal?

#SCD#ACS#pediatrics
Tap to see answer
Card #4
Answer
Acute Chest Syndrome (ACS). This is a leading cause of death in SCD. History of SCD + Fever/Chest Pain + New Infiltrate = ACS. Primary goal: Maintain SpO2 >92% (or 95% per 2026 protocols) to prevent further sickling, aggressive incentive spirometry (10 breaths every 2 hours while awake), and judicious fluid management. NBRC Strategy: Differentiate ACS from simple pneumonia in SCD patients; ACS requires more aggressive pulmonary hygiene to prevent respiratory failure.
Tap to see question
Card #4
5
📚 assessmentmedium

During a history intake, a patient reveals they sleep in a recliner to breathe better and often wake up gasping for air two hours after falling asleep. How should the Respiratory Therapist document these findings and what do they suggest?

#CHF#orthopnea#PND
Tap to see answer
Card #5
Answer
Document as Orthopnea (needing to stay upright to breathe) and Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND). These historical markers are highly suggestive of Left-Sided Heart Failure/Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). Strategy: NBRC tests your ability to link subjective history to underlying pathophysiology. Distractor: Do not confuse PND with Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA); PND is relieved by sitting up, while OSA is relieved by airway clearance or pressure.
Tap to see question
Card #5
6
📚 assessmenthard

A 58-year-old patient with hypertension and CHF presents with a persistent, non-productive cough but no wheezing or fever. Lung sounds are clear. Which category of the patient's medication history should be scrutinized first to prevent unnecessary diagnostic testing?

#ACEI#cough#pharmacology
Tap to see answer
Card #6
Answer
ACE Inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril, Enalapril). Up to 20% of patients develop a dry, hacking cough due to increased bradykinin levels. NBRC Pearl: Before ordering PFTs or Bronchoscopy for a dry cough in a cardiac patient, check the med list. Switching to an ARB (Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker) usually resolves the cough. Distractor: Heart failure itself causes cardiac asthma, but ACE-I cough is characteristically dry and lacks wheezing or crackles.
Tap to see question
Card #6
7
📚 assessmentmedium

A patient reports a productive cough for 4 months this year and had a similar episode lasting 3 months last year. Based on the GOLD 2026 standards, how does this history define their condition, and what is the key demographic risk factor?

#COPD#bronchitis#GOLD
Tap to see answer
Card #7
Answer
This meets the clinical definition of Chronic Bronchitis: a productive cough for at least 3 months per year for 2 consecutive years. Key demographic risk: Cigarette smoking (90% of cases), though environmental pollutants and biomass fuels are significant in non-smokers. NBRC Tip: Ensure the timeline meets the 3 months/2 years rule for a definitive diagnosis of chronic bronchitis over acute bronchitis.
Tap to see question
Card #7
8
📚 assessmenthard

A 22-year-old presents with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure, bilateral ground-glass opacities, and a history of vaping THC-containing products. What is the suspected diagnosis, and what historical exclusion is necessary to confirm it?

#EVALI#vaping#ARDS
Tap to see answer
Card #8
Answer
EVALI (E-cigarette or Vaping Use-Associated Lung Injury). Diagnosis of exclusion: You must rule out pulmonary infection (viral/bacterial, including COVID-19/Influenza) and other causes (cardiac, neoplastic) via history and testing. NBRC 2026 Focus: Vaping history is now a standard part of social history for any young patient with unexplained diffuse lung injury or ARDS-like presentation.
Tap to see question
Card #8
9
📚 assessmentmedium

A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ED with rhinorrhea, low-grade fever, and wheezing. The mother notes the child attends a large daycare center. Which historical factor is most significant for the suspected diagnosis of Bronchiolitis?

#pediatrics#RSV#bronchiolitis
Tap to see answer
Card #9
Answer
Age (<2 years) and exposure (daycare/siblings) are the primary demographic/historical drivers for RSV-induced Bronchiolitis. NBRC Strategy: In infants, wheezing is more often viral bronchiolitis than reactive airway disease (asthma). Focus on supportive care (suctioning, hydration) rather than bronchodilators unless a trial shows benefit. History of prematurity would also increase the risk of severity.
Tap to see question
Card #9
10
📚 assessmenthard

A male patient with a BMI of 36, age 52, and a neck circumference of 18 inches presents with daytime somnolence. Using the STOP-BANG criteria, which demographic/historical factors are already present, and what is the next step?

#OSA#STOP-BANG#sleep
Tap to see answer
Card #10
Answer
Present: BMI >35, Age >50, Neck >17 inches (male threshold), Gender (Male). This patient is high risk for Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA). Next step: Referral for a Polysomnography (PSG) or Home Sleep Apnea Test (HSAT). NBRC Tip: STOP-BANG is a high-yield screening tool. Knowing the thresholds (Neck >16in females, >17in males) and the importance of BMI is essential for RRTs in the 2026 blueprint.
Tap to see question
Card #10
11
📚 assessmentmedium

A 55-year-old male reports smoking 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily since age 35. What is the patient's smoking history in pack-years?

#assessment#smoking
Tap to see answer
Card #11
Answer
30 pack-years. Calculation: (1.5 packs/day) x (20 years) = 30. NBRC Tip: Always convert individual cigarettes to packs (20 cigarettes = 1 pack) if the history is given in counts. Pack-year calculations are vital for determining COPD risk and eligibility for lung cancer screening. Cumulative exposure is the key metric for predicting long-term pulmonary damage and the development of emphysema or chronic bronchitis.
Tap to see question
Card #11
12
📚 assessmentmedium

A patient states they have smoked 15 cigarettes per day for the last 40 years. Calculate the pack-year history for this patient.

#assessment#calculation
Tap to see answer
Card #12
Answer
30 pack-years. Calculation: (15 cigarettes / 20 cigarettes per pack) = 0.75 packs per day. 0.75 x 40 years = 30 pack-years. Clinical Pearl: Even light smoking (less than one pack per day) over a long duration results in significant cumulative exposure and increased risk for obstructive lung disease. On the NBRC exam, pay close attention to whether the data is provided in packs or cigarettes.
Tap to see question
Card #12
13
📚 assessmenthard

A 60-year-old female smoked 2 packs/day for 10 years, then cut back to 1 pack/day for the next 10 years, and has been smoke-free for 5 years. What is her total pack-year history?

#assessment#calculation
Tap to see answer
Card #13
Answer
30 pack-years. Calculation: (2 packs x 10 years) + (1 pack x 10 years) = 20 + 10 = 30 pack-years. The 5 years of smoking cessation does not reduce the pack-year total, though it decreases current risk. NBRC Strategy: Focus on the cumulative exposure; do not subtract years for time quit when calculating history. The pack-year metric is a permanent record of historical exposure.
Tap to see question
Card #13
14
📚 assessmentmedium

According to current standards, which smoking history threshold is a primary criterion for initiating annual low-dose CT (LDCT) lung cancer screening in adults aged 50-80?

#assessment#screening
Tap to see answer
Card #14
Answer
20 pack-years. Current guidelines (USPSTF/NBRC) recommend annual LDCT for adults 50-80 who have a 20 pack-year history and currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years. This is a high-yield exam point for patient assessment and preventative care recommendations. Note: The threshold was lowered from 30 to 20 pack-years in recent years to increase screening sensitivity.
Tap to see question
Card #14
15
📚 assessmenthard

A patient with a 50 pack-year history presents to the ER. Co-oximetry reveals a carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level of 8%. In the absence of smoke inhalation, how should the RT interpret this finding?

#assessment#co-oximetry
Tap to see answer
Card #15
Answer
This level is consistent with heavy tobacco use. Normal COHb for non-smokers is <1.5%; for smokers, it typically ranges from 3-10% depending on frequency. NBRC Tip: Distinguish between environmental CO poisoning (typically >15%) and chronic tobacco use. High COHb shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, impairing O2 unloading at the tissue level, causing chronic hypoxia.
Tap to see question
Card #15
16
📚 assessmenthard

A patient with a 40 pack-year history says, I know smoking is bad for my COPD, and I'm thinking about quitting next month. Which stage of the Transtheoretical Model is this patient in?

#assessment#tobacco cessation
Tap to see answer
Card #16
Answer
Contemplation. In this stage, the patient recognizes the problem and intends to change within the next 6 months but has not yet made a specific commitment to a date. Preparation involves intent to quit within 30 days. NBRC Focus: Identifying the stage of change allows the RT to tailor the smoking cessation intervention effectively (e.g., using The 5 R's for those not ready to quit).
Tap to see question
Card #16
17
📚 assessmentmedium

During a pediatric asthma assessment, the RT notes the parents smoke 2 packs/day in the home. What is the most significant clinical implication of this environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) exposure?

#assessment#pediatrics
Tap to see answer
Card #17
Answer
Increased airway hyperreactivity and frequency of exacerbations. ETS is a major trigger for pediatric asthma and is linked to increased rates of SIDS, otitis media, and lower respiratory tract infections. NBRC Exam Tip: When assessing pediatric respiratory distress, always evaluate environmental triggers; ETS is often the primary modifiable risk factor in the home environment.
Tap to see question
Card #17
18
📚 assessmenthard

A 22-year-old patient reports vaping daily for 4 years but never smoking combustible cigarettes. How should the RT document this in the Pack-Year section of the medical record?

#assessment#vaping
Tap to see answer
Card #18
Answer
Pack-years should be documented as zero, but the vaping history must be recorded separately. Pack-year calculations are specific to combustible tobacco. Vaping history should include device type, nicotine concentration, and frequency to assess risk for EVALI (E-cigarette or Vaping Use-Associated Lung Injury). NBRC Tip: Do not attempt to convert vape pods to pack-years; they are distinct exposures.
Tap to see question
Card #18
19
📚 assessmentmedium

A patient with a 30 pack-year history is hospitalized for an acute MI and expresses a strong desire to quit smoking. Which nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) provides the most rapid relief for acute cravings?

#assessment#pharmacology
Tap to see answer
Card #19
Answer
Nicotine nasal spray or nicotine gum/lozenges. While the nicotine patch provides steady-state levels (long-acting), the spray or gum/lozenges are short-acting and better for breakthrough cravings. NBRC Tip: Combining a long-acting patch with a short-acting rescue NRT is more effective than monotherapy. For the exam, recognize that NRT is indicated for patients in the Action stage.
Tap to see question
Card #19
20
📚 assessmenthard

A patient with a reported 5 pack-year history has a FEF25-75% of 45% predicted and an exhaled carbon monoxide (eCO) level of 25 ppm. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

#assessment#diagnostics
Tap to see answer
Card #20
Answer
The patient is likely underreporting their current tobacco use. An eCO of 25 ppm is highly suggestive of heavy current smoking (usually >10-15 ppm indicates recent smoking). NBRC Strategy: Use objective data (COHb or eCO) to validate subjective history, especially when PFT results show unexpected small airway obstruction (FEF25-75%) that doesn't align with a minimal smoking history.
Tap to see question
Card #20
21
📚 basicsmedium

A 72-year-old alert male with a COPD exacerbation refuses BiPAP despite a pH of 7.24 and worsening respiratory distress. He demonstrates understanding of the risks, including death. What is the RT's most appropriate next action?

#ethics#autonomy
Tap to see answer
Card #21
Answer
Respect patient autonomy. If a patient is competent, oriented, and fully informed of the risks, they have the legal right to refuse any treatment. The RT must document the refusal, notify the attending physician, and continue to provide other supportive care (e.g., oxygen, medications) that the patient still accepts. NBRC Strategy: Autonomy is a top priority on the exam; as long as the patient is decisional, their choice overrides the clinician's desire to provide beneficial treatment (beneficence).
Tap to see question
Card #21
22
📚 basicshard

An unconscious patient has no Advanced Directive or Healthcare Proxy. The spouse wants everything done, but the adult child claims the patient never wanted to be on a machine. According to the standard legal hierarchy, who is the primary decision-maker?

#ethics#legal
Tap to see answer
Card #22
Answer
The Spouse. In the absence of a designated Healthcare Proxy (DPOA) or Living Will, the legal hierarchy for surrogate decision-making is generally: 1. Legal Guardian, 2. Designated Healthcare Proxy, 3. Spouse, 4. Adult Children, 5. Parents, 6. Adult Siblings. Clinical Pearl: RTs should follow the spouse's direction while suggesting an Ethics Committee consult if family conflict impedes the care plan. NBRC focuses on the legal hierarchy of next-of-kin.
Tap to see question
Card #22
23
📚 basicsmedium

A patient has a DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order. During a treatment, the RT finds the patient in acute respiratory distress due to a large mucus plug. Should the RT perform therapeutic suctioning and provide supplemental oxygen?

#ethics#dnr
Tap to see answer
Card #23
Answer
Yes. A DNR order applies specifically to the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest (no pulse or no breathing). It does NOT preclude standard medical care, comfort measures, or the treatment of reversible conditions. Unless DNI (Do Not Intubate) or Comfort Care Only is specifically documented, the RT must provide all indicated therapies to prevent arrest. NBRC Distractor: Do not confuse DNR with Do Not Treat.
Tap to see question
Card #23
24
📚 basicshard

During an apnea test for brain death determination, the patient's SpO2 drops to 84% and systolic BP falls to 75 mmHg before the 10-minute mark. What is the correct immediate action by the RT?

#ethics#brain-death
Tap to see answer
Card #24
Answer
Abort the test and return the patient to previous ventilator settings. Apnea testing requires hemodynamic stability. If the patient develops significant hypotension, arrhythmias, or SpO2 <85%, the test must be terminated. To confirm brain death, the PaCO2 must rise ≥20 mmHg above baseline (or >60 mmHg) with no respiratory effort observed. NBRC Exam Tip: Safety and stability are prerequisites for valid brain death testing.
Tap to see question
Card #24
25
📚 basicsmedium

A family requests terminal weaning for a patient with a terminal illness and poor prognosis. What is the Respiratory Therapist's primary clinical and ethical responsibility during this process?

#ethics#palliative
Tap to see answer
Card #25
Answer
Ensure patient comfort and prevent air hunger. RTs must coordinate with the nurse and physician to ensure that opioids (e.g., morphine) or benzodiazepines are titrated to effect BEFORE and DURING the reduction of ventilator support. The goal of terminal weaning or terminal extubation is to remove burdensome interventions while maintaining dignity. NBRC Tip: The focus is on symptom management, not hastening death.
Tap to see question
Card #25
26
📚 basicshard

A patient's Living Will states no mechanical ventilation. The patient is now obtunded. The legally designated Healthcare Proxy (DPOA) demands the patient be intubated for acute respiratory failure. Which takes precedence?

#ethics#legal
Tap to see answer
Card #26
Answer
The Healthcare Proxy (DPOA). In most jurisdictions, a designated surrogate's current decisions override a previously written Living Will. The proxy is legally empowered to interpret the patient's wishes within the specific clinical context of the moment. RT Action: Proceed with intubation as directed by the proxy and physician. NBRC emphasizes that the DPOA is the highest authority among advanced directives.
Tap to see question
Card #26
27
📚 basicshard

An RT is asked to participate in a Slow Code (providing less than vigorous resuscitation) for a terminal patient who does NOT have a DNR order. What is the ethical standing of this practice?

#ethics#legal
Tap to see answer
Card #27
Answer
Slow codes are ethically and legally prohibited. They violate the principle of Veracity (truth-telling) and provide a standard of care below the legal requirement. If no formal DNR order exists, the RT is legally obligated to provide full, high-quality resuscitation. RTs should advocate for a formal goals-of-care discussion between the physician and family rather than participating in a slow code.
Tap to see question
Card #27
28
📚 basicsmedium

Which ethical principle is most directly involved when an RT must decide how to allocate a limited supply of mechanical ventilators during a mass casualty respiratory pandemic?

#ethics#justice
Tap to see answer
Card #28
Answer
Justice. The principle of Justice refers to the fair, equitable, and appropriate distribution of healthcare resources. In a crisis, Distributive Justice protocols are used to allocate resources based on clinical prognosis and objective scoring systems (like SOFA) rather than first-come, first-served or socioeconomic status. NBRC tests this in the context of resource scarcity and triage.
Tap to see question
Card #28
29
📚 basicsmedium

A patient scheduled for an elective bronchoscopy tells the RT, I signed the consent form, but I'm still not sure why they are doing this or what the risks are. What is the RT's priority?

#ethics#informed-consent
Tap to see answer
Card #29
Answer
Notify the physician that informed consent is potentially invalid. Informed consent requires that the patient understands the procedure, the risks, the benefits, and the alternatives. While the RT can explain the mechanics of the test, it is the physician's legal responsibility to ensure the patient is fully informed. The procedure should be delayed until the physician addresses the patient's concerns.
Tap to see question
Card #29
30
📚 basicshard

An RT administers high doses of morphine to a patient during terminal weaning. The medication relieves the patient's gasping but also suppresses the respiratory drive, likely shortening the time to death. What principle justifies this?

#ethics#palliative
Tap to see answer
Card #30
Answer
The Principle of Double Effect. This principle states that an action with a good intended effect (relieving pain/suffering) is ethically permissible even if it has a foreseen but bad unintended effect (respiratory depression/hastened death). The intent must be the relief of suffering, not the termination of life. This is a foundational concept in end-of-life respiratory care.
Tap to see question
Card #30

Unlock All 1040 Cards

Get instant access to the complete NCLEX-RN bundle with 1040 premium flashcards

750 Total Cards

5 complete collections

Offline Access

Study anywhere, anytime

One-Time Payment

No subscriptions

✓ Instant access • ✓ Lifetime updates • ✓ 30-day guarantee

Why MedFlashCard?

Expert Content

Created by experienced nursing educators and NCLEX experts

Proven Method

Spaced repetition and active recall for maximum retention

High Pass Rate

Join thousands of successful nurses who passed with our cards

About RRT PREP

I know exactly how overwhelming the weeks leading up to a certification exam can feel. You are likely balancing long shifts, patient care, and personal responsibilities, all while trying to cram massive amounts of information into your head. In my years mentoring clinicians through this process, I have found that the biggest hurdle isn't usually a lack of knowledge, but rather the anxiety of not knowing where to start or how to organize the material effectively. That is why I am sharing this preview of the Rrt Prep collection with you. While the full comprehensive set includes 1,040 flashcards, I have selected these 30 free practice questions to give you a solid starting point without the pressure of a commitment. These cards cover essential areas we deal with daily, including assessment techniques, diagnostics, management strategies, and pharmacology. It is a snapshot of the broader curriculum designed to help you gauge where you stand right now. When you go through these free cards, I want you to treat them like a real exam simulation. Don't just flip through them passively. Read the question, look away, and verbalize your answer before checking the back. In my experience, this active recall method is the single most effective way to move information from short-term memory to long-term retention. Use this preview to identify your weak spots. If you stumble on the pharmacology questions, for example, you know immediately that is where your next study session needs to focus. I believe in this approach because it mirrors the clinical judgment we use on the floor. It is not just about memorizing facts; it is about applying them quickly and accurately under pressure. Whether you decide to utilize the full collection later or just stick with these practice questions for now, I hope this resource gives you a moment of clarity and confidence in your preparation. You have put in the work at the bedside, and now it is time to validate that expertise on paper. Take a deep breath, trust your training, and let's get you ready for that exam.

Key Topics:

Rrt Preprespiratory exam reviewclinical flashcardsfree practice questionscertification study guiderespiratory pharmacologypatient assessment