These CEN practice questions target pharmacology. The complete CEN deck holds 1120 flashcards, 100 of them dedicated to this topic. Study the free samples below, then unlock the whole collection for a one-time $7.
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A 55yo male presents with crushing chest pain and ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the standard initial dose of Aspirin and the preferred administration route to ensure rapid bioavailability?
Show answer →Dose: 162 to 325 mg. Route: Non-enteric coated, CHEWED. Rationale: Chewing allows for rapid absorption through the buccal mucosa and faster COX-1 inhibition, which prevents thromboxane A2 production and further platelet aggregation. CEN Strategy: BCEN often tests the chewed aspect. If a patient is already on 81mg daily, they STILL need the full 162-325mg dose in the acute setting. Aspirin is the first medication that should be given in suspected ACS unless a true allergy (anaphylaxis) exists.
A patient's peripheral IV site for Norepinephrine becomes blanched and cool. What is the immediate pharmacological intervention to prevent tissue necrosis?
Show answer →1. Stop infusion immediately. 2. Do not remove IV; attempt to aspirate residual drug. 3. Administer Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic antagonist, subcutaneously (5-10mg in 10mL saline) in a circle of protection around the site. BCEN Tip: Terbutaline or topical nitroglycerin are alternatives if Phentolamine is unavailable. Early recognition is key to preventing permanent injury.
A patient with status asthmaticus is receiving continuous albuterol. What is the priority timing for systemic corticosteroid administration according to BCEN and GINA standards?
Show answer →Systemic corticosteroids (e.g., Methylprednisolone 60-125mg IV or Prednisone 50mg PO) must be administered within the first hour of ED arrival. Rationale: Steroids require 4-6 hours to begin reducing airway inflammation; early administration is linked to decreased hospitalization and relapse. BCEN Strategy: If asked for the next priority after starting bronchodilators, steroids are the answer to address the late-phase inflammatory response.
A 45y/o male with alcohol use disorder receives IV haloperidol for acute agitation. Which baseline diagnostic study is most critical to monitor before and during administration to prevent a lethal arrhythmia?
Show answer →The 12-lead ECG (specifically the QTc interval). Haloperidol, especially when administered IV, is associated with QTc prolongation and a high risk for Torsades de Pointes. BCEN Tip: Monitor QTc intervals closely; if the QTc exceeds 450-500ms, the medication should be withheld or switched. Electrolyte imbalances (hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia) further increase this risk. Continuous cardiac monitoring is standard for IV antipsychotic administration in the ED.
A patient presents with bradycardia and hypotension after an intentional overdose. The blood glucose is 240 mg/dL. Which medication class is most likely responsible and why?
Show answer →Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB) toxicity. Mechanism: CCBs inhibit L-type calcium channels in pancreatic beta cells\, preventing insulin release\, leading to hyperglycemia. Beta-blockers (BB) typically cause hypoglycemia or normoglycemia. CEN Tip: BCEN frequently tests this metabolic differentiator to distinguish between these two similar-appearing toxicities.
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Try 30 free CEN cards firstThe full CEN deck contains 1120 flashcards, and 100 of them focus on pharmacology. This page shows 5 free samples.
Our CEN deck dedicates 100 of 1120 cards (9%) to pharmacology — always cross-check the official BCEN exam outline for the current blueprint weighting.
Yes — the samples on this page are free, and the CEN preview page has 30 more free cards. Full access to all 1120 cards is a one-time $7.
Assessment
106 cards
Basics
20 cards
Diagnostics
50 cards
Management
310 cards
Pathology
420 cards
Procedures
110 cards
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