The CPC (Certified Professional Coder) is a medical coding and health-information credential awarded by AAPC.
AAPC publishes the official exam outline, eligibility rules and fees — see AAPC's official page before you book.
Twenty CPC (Certified Professional Coder) questions, with the answers hidden until you want them — covering Procedures, Coding Guidelines, Pathology, Anatomy and more. They are real cards from our 1041-card deck, not the 30 on the free preview page, so you can use both. Work through them cold, then use your score below to decide what to study next. AAPC publishes the official exam outline — check it for the real blueprint.
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1041
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A hospital-based ambulance service provides transport for a patient. The service is furnished directly by the hospital. Which modifier distinguishes this from a service provided under arrangement?
Show answer →The correct modifier is QN (Ambulance service furnished directly by a provider of services). Rationale: - QN: Used when the provider (like a hospital) owns and operates the ambulance directly. - QM: Used when the ambulance service is provided under arrangement (the hospital contracts with a private ambulance company to provide the service on their behalf). Exam Strategy: These modifiers are often required in addition to the origin/destination modifiers (e.g., RH-QN). Pay close attention to who owns the ambulance in the clinical vignette.
Documentation: Sharp debridement performed using a scalpel. Devitalized epidermis and dermis removed from a 25 sq cm stasis ulcer until bleeding tissue was reached. Code(s)?
Show answer →97597, 97598. Rationale: Code 11042 requires reaching subcutaneous tissue. Since only epidermis and dermis were removed, use Active Wound Care Management codes. 97597 covers the first 20 sq cm; 97598 covers each additional 20 sq cm. Note: These are used for non-excisional or superficial debridement. On the CPC exam, look closely for whether the subcutaneous layer was actually reached.
A physician debrides 22 sq cm of muscle and 5 sq cm of bone from a single large leg wound. Which code(s) should be reported?
Show answer →11044. Rationale: For a SINGLE wound, code ONLY to the deepest level reached. 11044 includes the debridement of the overlying subcutaneous tissue and muscle. You do not sum areas of different depths within the SAME wound; you report the total area of the wound at its deepest level. If the bone was reached anywhere in that 27 sq cm wound, the whole area (up to the size of the bone debridement) is 11044.
A patient undergoes debridement of three separate muscle-level ulcers: 10 sq cm, 15 sq cm, and 20 sq cm (Total 45 sq cm). What is the correct code sequence?
Show answer →11043, 11046, 11046. Rationale: Sum all areas of the SAME depth: 10 + 15 + 20 = 45 sq cm. 11043 covers the first 20 sq cm. 11046 is an add-on code for each additional 20 sq cm, or part thereof. The first 11046 covers up to 40 sq cm total. The second 11046 covers the remaining 5 sq cm. Total: 11043 x 1, 11046 x 2. Exam Tip: Part thereof means even 1 extra sq cm triggers another unit of the add-on code.
A patient presents with a 1.0 cm benign lesion on the arm and a 2.0 cm benign lesion on the leg. Both are excised. How are these reported?
Show answer →11401 and 11402-59 (or -XS). Rationale: Excision diameters are never added together. Each lesion is reported as a separate line item. The second lesion requires a modifier to indicate a separate site. AAPC Tip: Only repair (closure) lengths are added together when in the same anatomical group/complexity.
A provider uses Dermabond (tissue adhesive) to close a 3cm superficial laceration on the arm. No sutures are used. Is this coded as a repair?
Show answer →Yes. CPT guidelines state wound closure using tissue adhesives (e.g., 2-octylcyanoacrylate) is coded as a repair. Note: If only adhesive strips (e.g., Steri-Strips) are used as the sole repair material, it is coded as an E/M service, not a repair code.
A patient presents with a 10cm ragged laceration on the thigh. The repair requires extensive undermining and placement of retention sutures. What is the correct classification?
Show answer →Complex Repair (13121). Complex repairs go beyond layered closure and include at least one of the following: extensive undermining, stents, or retention sutures. AAPC often tests retention sutures or extensive undermining to distinguish intermediate from complex closures.
A physician performs a 2cm intermediate repair on the forehead and a 3cm intermediate repair on the cheek. How should these be reported?
Show answer →Sum the lengths. For Intermediate (12031-12057) and Complex (13100-13153) repairs, the forehead and cheeks are in the same anatomical grouping (Face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips). Total length 5cm. Code 12052. Strategy: Groupings vary between Simple and Intermediate/Complex.
A 5cm complex repair of the arm is performed. The surgeon also repairs a severed digital nerve in the same area. Can both be coded?
Show answer →Yes. Repair of nerves (64702+) and tendons (26350+) are reported separately from the integumentary wound repair. The integumentary repair code covers the skin closure, while the nerve/tendon codes cover the deeper structural work. Always check NCCI edits for specific code pairs.
In NCCI PTP edits, what is the primary significance of a code being listed in Column 2 versus Column 1?
Show answer →Column 1 contains the comprehensive code, while Column 2 contains the component or bundled code. If both are reported for the same session, the Column 2 code is generally not paid. If the Correct Coding Modifier (CCM) indicator is 1, a modifier (e.g., 59, XS) may be used to bypass the edit.
How often are NCCI PTP and MUE files updated by CMS, and why is this critical for a Certified Professional Coder?
Show answer →Updates occur QUARTERLY (Jan 1, April 1, July 1, Oct 1). CPCs must stay current because codes are added, deleted, or CCM indicators change. Reporting bundled codes based on outdated edits leads to immediate technical denials. CMS releases separate Practitioner and Hospital PTP versions.
A coder is submitting a claim for a service expected to be denied for medical necessity. A valid ABN was signed and is on file. Which modifier should be appended to the CPT code to indicate a mandatory ABN was obtained?
Show answer →Modifier GA. This modifier signifies that a mandatory ABN is on file for a service that is usually covered but may be denied for lack of medical necessity in this specific instance. Exam Strategy: Distinguish between GA (ABN present) and GZ (No ABN). If the exam scenario mentions a signed ABN for a medically unnecessary service, GA is the correct modifier. If no ABN was signed, use GZ.
A patient develops sepsis 3 days after an abdominal surgery. The provider documents Post-procedural sepsis due to Serratia. What is the principal diagnosis?
Show answer →For infections following a procedure, a code from Chapter 19 (Complications) must be sequenced first. Sequence: 1. T81.44- (Sepsis following a procedure); 2. A41.53 (Sepsis due to Serratia). AAPC Exam Tip: There must be a documented causal relationship between the procedure and the sepsis to use the T-code. Use additional codes for any associated acute organ dysfunction (R65.2-).
A patient is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the upper lobe of the right lung with metastasis to the thoracic spine. The encounter is solely for the administration of chemotherapy. In what order should the ICD-10-CM codes be sequenced?
Show answer →According to ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines (Section I.C.2.e.1), if the encounter is solely for chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiation, the appropriate Z51.- code is sequenced first. The secondary code is the malignancy for which the treatment is being given. In this case: 1) Z51.11 (Encounter for antineoplastic chemotherapy), 2) C34.11 (Malignant neoplasm of upper lobe, right bronchus or lung), 3) C79.51 (Secondary malignant neoplasm of bone). AAPC Exam Tip: Always look for the primary reason for the encounter; Z51 codes take precedence for therapy encounters even over the primary malignancy.
A CT scan of the abdomen is performed. The radiologist describes a mass located in the plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. Which anatomical plane is being described?
Show answer →Coronal (Frontal) Plane. This plane divides the body or an organ into front (anterior/ventral) and back (posterior/dorsal) sections. Exam Tip: AAPC often tests the distinction between Coronal and Sagittal. Remember Coronal like a Crown (tiara) sitting from ear to ear, slicing down. In coding, coronal imaging is high-yield for sinus and maxillofacial CPT codes (e.g., 70486).
An operative report for a humeral shaft fracture repair describes an incision made on the portion of the bone furthest from the shoulder joint. Which directional term describes this location?
Show answer →Distal. In the context of extremities, distal refers to a point further from the trunk or point of attachment. Conversely, proximal is closer to the trunk. Exam Tip: Accurate coding of fractures in ICD-10-CM requires identifying the specific part of the bone (proximal, shaft, or distal). Misidentifying these terms leads to incorrect code selection and potential claim denials.
A 45-year-old patient presents with acute pyelonephritis, high fever, and persistent vomiting. The physician determines the patient requires IV antibiotics and admission. What is the complexity level for the Problems Addressed component of MDM?
Show answer →Moderate. This qualifies as an Acute illness with systemic symptoms. Guidelines define this as an illness that causes systemic symptoms (like high fever, severe vomiting, or generalized body aches) and has a high risk of morbidity without treatment. AAPC Strategy: Systemic symptoms associated with a localized infection (like pyelonephritis or pneumonia) generally move the problem complexity to the Moderate level. Compare this to Acute uncomplicated (Low), which lacks systemic symptoms.
A physician addresses one stable chronic condition (Hypothyroidism) and one acute, uncomplicated illness (Allergic Rhinitis) during an office visit. What is the level for Number and Complexity of Problems Addressed?
Show answer →Low. Under 2026 guidelines, one stable chronic illness is Low, and one acute uncomplicated illness is also Low. Unlike the Moderate category (which requires 2+ stable chronic illnesses), multiple Low-level problems do not stack to reach a higher level unless they meet specific definitions of other categories. AAPC Distractor: The exam may list several minor or stable problems to tempt you to choose Moderate. Always refer strictly to the table definitions.
Patient receives an abdominal CT. Contrast is administered orally and rectally. How is this coded regarding the with contrast CPT designation?
Show answer →Per CPT Radiology Guidelines, with contrast requires intravascular (IV), intra-articular, or intrathecal administration. Oral and/or rectal contrast administration does NOT qualify a study as with contrast for CPT coding purposes. This encounter would be coded as without contrast. AAPC Exam Tip: Watch for oral contrast as a distractor intended to make you choose a with contrast code incorrectly. Always look for IV or injection documentation.
A surgeon receives a $500 consulting fee from a medical device rep for every hip implant used in surgery. This arrangement is being investigated for potentially violating which federal law because it involves remuneration to induce referrals?
Show answer →The Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS). AKS is a criminal law that prohibits the exchange (or offer) of anything of value (remuneration) to induce or reward the referral of federal healthcare program business. Remuneration includes cash, free rent, or excessive consulting fees. CPC Tip: AKS applies to ANYONE (not just physicians) and any federal program (not just Medicare).
17–20 correct
Strong. Move to the hardest material and timed drilling rather than re-reading topics you already know.
12–16 correct
A normal mid-prep score. Work the topics you missed one at a time — the topic pages below are built for exactly that.
Under 12 correct
Early days. Go topic by topic instead of taking more mixed tests: pick your weakest area below and drill it until the questions feel routine.
Procedures questions
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Coding Guidelines questions
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Pathology questions
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Anatomy questions
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Management questions
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Diagnostics questions
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Regulations questions
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