The RMA (Registered Medical Assistant) is an allied-health certification awarded by AMT.
AMT publishes the official exam outline, eligibility rules and fees — see AMT's official page before you book.
Twenty RMA (Registered Medical Assistant) questions, with the answers hidden until you want them — covering Procedures, Management, Physiology, Pathology and more. They are real cards from our 1080-card deck, not the 30 on the free preview page, so you can use both. Work through them cold, then use your score below to decide what to study next. AMT publishes the official exam outline — check it for the real blueprint.
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When exiting a patient room where PPE was required, what is the correct sequence for doffing the following items: gloves, gown, goggles, and mask?
Show answer →Correct Doffing Sequence: 1. Gloves, 2. Goggles/Face Shield, 3. Gown, 4. Mask/Respirator. Rationale: Gloves are considered the most contaminated and are removed first. The mask is removed last, after leaving the room (for airborne) or just before exiting (for contact), to protect the airway. Exam Strategy: AMT frequently tests this sequence. A common distractor is removing the mask before the gown. Remember to perform hand hygiene immediately after doffing.
An RMA is cleaning an exam room after a patient with confirmed Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). Which hand hygiene method and PPE are mandatory under Standard and Contact Precautions?
Show answer →Hand Hygiene: Soap and water ONLY. Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rubs are ineffective against C. diff spores; physical friction and rinsing with soap and water are required to mechanically remove spores. PPE: Gloves and Gown are required for Contact Precautions. Clinical Pearl: Standard precautions apply to all patients, but C. diff requires Contact Plus protocols. AMT exams emphasize that sanitizer is NOT a substitute for handwashing in the presence of spores or visible soil.
During a routine venipuncture on a healthy-appearing adult, which PPE is required by OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard as part of Standard Precautions?
Show answer →Required PPE: Gloves. Rationale: Gloves are mandatory for any vascular access procedure. Gowns, masks, or eye protection are only required if splashing or spraying of blood is reasonably anticipated. AMT Focus: The exam often tests the anticipation of exposure rule. If the scenario does not suggest a high risk of spray (like an arterial spurting or irrigation), gloves are the baseline requirement for phlebotomy.
While assisting with a minor surgical procedure, the RMA notices the physician's sleeve briefly touches the 1-inch border of the sterile field. What is the immediate required action?
Show answer →Action: Consider the field contaminated and notify the physician immediately to stop the procedure and reset the sterile field. Rationale: In aseptic technique, the 1-inch border of any sterile drape or field is always considered non-sterile/contaminated. Any contact between a sterile item and this border breaks the sterile chain. Exam Tip: AMT prioritizes patient safety; continuing if it was just a quick touch is always an incorrect distractor.
A medical assistant is coding a complex fracture. The code requires a 7th character for the encounter type, but the category only has 4 characters. What character must be used in the 5th and 6th positions to allow for the 7th character?
Show answer →The character X is used as a placeholder in ICD-10-CM. When a code requires a 7th character but does not have 6 characters preceding it, X must be used in the empty positions to maintain the correct structure (e.g., T15.01XA). AMT Tip: Remember that ICD-10-CM codes can be 3 to 7 characters long, and the decimal always follows the 3rd character. Placeholder X allows for future expansion and ensures the 7th character remains in the 7th position.
In the ICD-10-CM Tabular List, a medical assistant notes an Excludes1 instruction under a specific code. What does this convention indicate to the coder regarding the use of the excluded code?
Show answer →Excludes1 indicates a pure exclude. It means NOT CODED HERE. The code being excluded and the code under which the note appears cannot be used together because they are mutually exclusive (e.g., a congenital condition vs. an acquired form of the same condition). AMT Tip: Contrast this with Excludes2 (Not included here), which means the patient may have both conditions simultaneously, and both codes can be reported if supported by documentation.
A patient presents specifically for a scheduled chemotherapy session for lung cancer. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, what should be the primary (first-listed) diagnosis code for this encounter?
Show answer →When a patient presents solely for chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiation therapy, the appropriate Z-code (Z51.0, Z51.11, or Z51.12) must be sequenced first, followed by the code for the malignancy. Strategy: AMT often tests sequencing for encounter for scenarios. Even though the cancer is the underlying cause, the reason for the visit is the treatment, making the Z-code primary.
Identify the specific site where external respiration occurs and the primary physical process driving the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the respiratory membrane.
Show answer →External respiration occurs in the alveoli (specifically the alveolar-capillary membrane). The driving force is simple diffusion, moving gases from an area of higher partial pressure to lower partial pressure. Oxygen moves from the alveoli (PO2 ~104 mmHg) to the blood (PO2 ~40 mmHg), while CO2 moves from the blood to the alveoli. AMT Tip: Distinguish between external respiration (lungs/blood) and internal respiration (blood/tissues).
A premature infant or a patient with ARDS lacks sufficient pulmonary surfactant. Explain the physiological consequence on lung compliance and the specific cell type responsible for surfactant production.
Show answer →Type II Alveolar cells (septal cells) produce surfactant, a phospholipid that reduces surface tension. Without it, surface tension increases, causing alveoli to collapse (atelectasis) and significantly decreasing lung compliance (the ease of expansion). This increases the work of breathing. AMT Exam Note: Distinguish between Type I cells (gas exchange structure) and Type II cells (surfactant secretion).
Describe the change in intrapulmonary pressure and the physical movement of the diaphragm during the active phase of inspiration.
Show answer →During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward (flattens). This increases thoracic volume, which decreases intrapulmonary pressure (Boyle's Law) to approximately -1 mmHg relative to atmospheric pressure, drawing air into the lungs. AMT Focus: Inspiration is an active process requiring muscle contraction; normal expiration is typically passive due to elastic recoil.
A 65-year-old smoker presents with a barrel chest and pursed-lip breathing. Which pathological process characterizes this specific type of COPD?
Show answer →This describes Emphysema. Pathologically, it involves the permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, accompanied by destruction of alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis. This leads to a loss of elastic recoil and air trapping. **Exam Tip:** AMT often tests the Pink Puffer (Emphysema) vs. Blue Bloater (Chronic Bronchitis) distinction. Chronic bronchitis is pathologically defined by mucus gland hyperplasia and a productive cough for at least 3 months in 2 consecutive years.
During an acute asthma exacerbation, what are the three primary pathological changes occurring in the bronchial tubes?
Show answer →1. Bronchospasm (acute tightening of smooth muscle). 2. Inflammation and edema of the mucosal lining. 3. Hypersecretion of thick, tenacious mucus. **Clinical Pearl:** These changes lead to increased airway resistance and the classic wheezing (high-pitched whistling) heard on expiration. MA Role: Ensure the patient is placed in High-Fowler's position and vitals (especially SpO2) are taken immediately to assess for hypoxia.
A patient's urine specimen appears bright, reddish-orange. The patient mentions taking medication for a urinary tract infection. What is the most likely cause of this color, and how does it affect reagent strip reading?
Show answer →Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a common analgesic for UTI that causes a distinct orange-to-red discoloration. **AMT Exam Tip:** This color masks the color reactions on reagent strips, leading to false-positive or unreadable results (especially for bilirubin). The MA should note the color on the report; automated readers may be required to compensate for the interference, or the test may need to be repeated after the medication is discontinued.
A urine reagent strip shows positive bilirubin and normal urobilinogen. Which clinical condition is most consistent with these findings, and what is the required follow-up for a positive bilirubin?
Show answer →Bilirubinuria with normal urobilinogen suggests **biliary obstruction** (e.g., gallstones). Bilirubin in urine is always abnormal. **Follow-up:** AMT standards require an Ictotest for confirmation of any positive bilirubin reagent strip result, as it is more sensitive and less prone to interference from pigments. Clinical Pearl: Bilirubin is highly light-sensitive; specimens must be protected from light (e.g., amber container) to prevent false negatives.
An RMA is asked by a physician to administer a medication via IV push. According to the AMT standards and general scope of practice, how should the RMA respond?
Show answer →The RMA should decline the task. Most state laws and AMT standards exclude IV push/bolus medications from the RMA scope of practice. RMAs typically perform IM, SC, and ID injections. Strategy Tip: AMT emphasizes that RMAs must work under direct supervision and within state-specific laws. If a task is outside the scope, the RMA is legally liable even if ordered by a physician. In 2026, scope clarity remains a top priority for preventing medical errors.
A pediatric patient weighs 44 lbs. The provider orders a medication dosage based on kilograms. What is the patient's weight in kg?
Show answer →To convert pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg), divide the weight in pounds by 2.2. Calculation: 44 lb / 2.2 = 20 kg. Clinical Pearl: Weight-based dosing is standard in pediatrics to prevent medication errors. Always round to the nearest tenth unless facility policy states otherwise. AMT Exam Strategy: The AMT exam frequently tests this conversion as it is the foundation for pediatric pharmacology. Remember: lb to kg (divide by 2.2); kg to lb (multiply by 2.2). Common distractor: multiplying by 2.2 instead of dividing.
A patient states, I've been feeling off lately. Which interviewing technique is most effective for the MA to elicit specific information for the provider?
Show answer →The MA should use an **open-ended question** (e.g., Can you describe what you mean by 'feeling off'?) to encourage the patient to provide detailed info. **AMT Exam Tip:** Avoid Yes/No questions early in the interview. Open-ended questions are preferred for the Chief Complaint (CC) and History of Present Illness (HPI) to prevent leading the patient and to capture the full scope of symptoms.
A 55-year-old male collapses in the waiting room. After confirming the scene is safe and calling for help, you initiate CPR. According to current BLS guidelines, what is the required compression depth and rate for this adult patient?
Show answer →For adults, compressions must be at a depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm). The required rate is 100–120 compressions per minute. Rational: Adequate depth and rate ensure sufficient cardiac output and coronary perfusion pressure. AMT Focus: Avoid compressions deeper than 2.4 inches (6 cm) to prevent internal injury. Ensure full chest recoil between compressions to allow the heart to refill with blood.
A patient sits with arms crossed and eyes downcast while you explain a new medication. According to AMT standards, how should the Medical Assistant (MA) interpret and respond to this non-verbal behavior?
Show answer →Interpretation: The patient is likely feeling defensive, resistant, or anxious. Response: The MA should use therapeutic communication to address the barrier. Rational: Non-verbal cues (kinesics) often reveal more than verbal statements. Strategy: AMT emphasizes recognizing congruence (when verbal and non-verbal match). If they don't match, the MA must explore the non-verbal message. Avoid being dismissive; instead, use an open-ended statement like, I notice you seem concerned; what are your thoughts on this medication?
A patient is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma. What is the specific meaning of the combining form aden/o, and how does it differ from adip/o in a clinical setting?
Show answer →The combining form aden/o means gland. An adenocarcinoma is a malignant tumor arising from glandular epithelium. In contrast, adip/o means fat (e.g., adipose tissue). Clinical Pearl: Adenopathy refers to any disease of a gland, but is most commonly used to describe swollen lymph nodes. AMT Exam Strategy: AMT frequently tests roots that look similar. Remember: ADENo = Gland; ADIPo = Fat. Also, distinguish from lymphaden/o which specifically refers to lymph nodes.
17–20 correct
Strong. Move to the hardest material and timed drilling rather than re-reading topics you already know.
12–16 correct
A normal mid-prep score. Work the topics you missed one at a time — the topic pages below are built for exactly that.
Under 12 correct
Early days. Go topic by topic instead of taking more mixed tests: pick your weakest area below and drill it until the questions feel routine.
Procedures questions
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Management questions
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Physiology questions
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Pathology questions
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Diagnostics questions
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Try 30 free RMA cards firstIt is 20 real question-and-answer cards from our 1080-card RMA deck, mixed across topics so it feels like the breadth of the exam. It is not the official AMT exam and is not endorsed by AMT — for the official outline and any official practice material, go to AMT directly.
Use the bands on this page as study guidance, not as a pass mark: we do not publish a passing score for the RMA because AMT sets it, and it can change. Confirm the current standard in the official handbook.
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